Is the worldly law and the moral law the same? Has one digressed to relative "truth" (arbitrary and subjective absolutes), while we "conveniently" deny the other exists? Without an objective standard of Truth, whoever gains the most political power will dominate. If a person feels there is no consequence to his actions, he is less constrained to treat people fairly. But a Christian has moral restraint because he is ultimately accountable to GOD. The law is to be "used" and "obeyed" according to its own spirit and design, and use it for the purpose GOD has given it. 1 Timothy 1:8, "But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully." In the United States same want to use the law for its convenience and self-preservation (which is its destruction). They further contend that the United States was not founded on Christianity but on religious freedom. By the way, what was the purpose of the Pilgrims when they came to America as stated in the "Mayflower Compact"? Contrary to popular opinion, their purpose was not to find religious freedom, they already had found religious freedom in Holland. Their purpose is clearly stated (in the Mayflower Compact) as being for the "Glory of GOD and advancement of the Christian Faith". The Pilgrims were missionaries. DOES THIS SHOCK YOU?
Psalm 139: 23-24
GOD IS GOD!
About the Author and writer
The writer for our daily devotionals wishes to remain anonymous in regard to his work, giving instead Glory to the Author.